Hangar Prep

FAA Mechanic Powerplant (AMP) Knowledge Test, Practice Exams

The Aviation Mechanic Powerplant written test (AMP): 100 scored questions, 2 hours, 70% to pass. Original questions written to the FAA-S-ACS-1 blueprint and grounded in FAA-H-8083-32B and 14 CFR, with cited explanations.
Content last updated 3 July 2026

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The real test requires 70% to pass. Each knowledge area is scored separately here so you know exactly where you stand.

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The free sample gives you about two exams' worth of questions per knowledge area. The full bank covers every ACS knowledge area in depth, with source-cited explanations. $49, one time, lifetime access on up to 3 devices — all three tests (General, Airframe, Powerplant) included.

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Frequently asked questions

How is the FAA Mechanic Powerplant (AMP) Knowledge Test structured?

The real Aviation Mechanic - Powerplant written test has 100 multiple-choice questions (3 options each), a 2-hour time limit, and requires 70% to pass. Questions are drawn across 13 knowledge areas per the FAA-S-ACS-1 blueprint; this bank mirrors those areas and weights.

What score do I need to pass?

70 percent. Practice each knowledge area to that level, then run the full exam simulation before your test date.

Are these real FAA exam questions?

The live test bank is not published. Our questions include the FAA's own published sample questions plus original questions written to the ACS blueprint and grounded in the FAA handbooks (FAA-H-8083-30B/31B/32B) and 14 CFR, with the source cited in each explanation.

How many practice questions are included?

The full Aviation Mechanic - Powerplant bank contains 576 questions with explanations. The free sample gives you roughly two exams' worth per knowledge area.

Do I need all three tests?

A full A&P certificate requires General, Airframe, and Powerplant written tests (plus oral & practical). One Hangar Prep purchase covers all three, for life.

What does access cost?

$49, one time, for lifetime access to all three tests and everything we add later. No subscription.

Can I use it on more than one device?

Yes. One purchase works on up to 3 of your devices. Your progress is saved on each device.

Do I need to create an account?

No. The practice tests run in your browser with no signup. Your score history is saved on your own device.

Sample FAA Mechanic Powerplant (AMP) Knowledge Test practice questions

A selection of free questions with answers and explanations. Use the interactive modules above for timed, scored drills.

Finding a large quantity of metal on a chip detector or filter warrants what?

  1. Grounding the engine and investigating the source before further operation ✓
  2. Simply cleaning the chip detector and flying on as noted in the manufacturer's instructions
  3. Adding more oil to dilute the metal

Why: A significant quantity (or certain types) of metal on the chip detector/filter indicates possible serious internal distress; the engine is grounded and the source investigated (further inspection/teardown) before further operation. FAA-H-8083-32B ch.6.

During a turbine engine air-system inspection, cooling-air ducting and baffle seals are checked for what?

  1. Cracks, leaks, security, and deterioration that would reduce cooling airflow ✓
  2. Correct fuel-air ratio under normal operating conditions per the applicable maintenance manual
  3. Proper ignition timing

Why: Cooling ducting (rigid/flexible) and baffle seals are inspected for cracks, leaks, security, and deterioration, because any leakage reduces the cooling airflow reaching the components. FAA-H-8083-32B ch.1.

Current limiters (fusible links) in a high-current engine electrical circuit serve what purpose?

  1. To protect heavy feeder circuits from a sustained overload while tolerating brief surges ✓
  2. To regulate the generator voltage according to the manufacturer's service data
  3. To crank the engine

Why: Current limiters (slow-blow fusible links) protect heavy feeder/generator circuits: they tolerate the brief high surges of motor starting but open on a sustained overload, protecting the wiring. FAA-H-8083-32B ch.4.

Show more sample questions with answers & explanations

Why is carburetor ice possible even on a warm, humid day?

  1. Fuel evaporation and the venturi pressure drop can lower the induction air temperature below freezing despite warm ambient air ✓
  2. The exhaust is too cold on warm days per the applicable maintenance manual under normal operating conditions per the applicable maintenance manual
  3. Warm air holds no moisture

Why: Because fuel evaporation absorbs heat and the venturi drops the pressure/temperature, the induction air can cool below freezing even when the outside air is warm (e.g., 70-100 F) and humid — a common cause of carburetor ice. FAA-H-8083-32B ch.3.

A turboprop air inlet presents an extra design problem compared with a turbojet because of what?

  1. The propeller drive shaft, hub, and spinner must be accommodated in the inlet ✓
  2. It needs no anti-icing at all according to the manufacturer's service data
  3. It uses a carburetor

Why: A turboprop inlet must be designed around the propeller drive shaft, hub, and spinner; a ducted arrangement is generally the best design for airflow and aerodynamic characteristics. FAA-H-8083-32B ch.3.

Besides current-carrying capacity, wire selection must limit the voltage drop to protect what?

  1. Proper operation of the equipment (excess drop starves the load of voltage) ✓
  2. The color of the insulation as noted in the manufacturer's instructions
  3. The engine oil pressure

Why: Wire is sized so the voltage drop over its length stays within limits; excessive drop leaves too little voltage at the equipment, causing it to malfunction, so longer runs use larger wire. FAA-H-8083-32B ch.4.

An indication that a turbine engine anti-ice (bleed air) system is functioning may include what?

  1. A slight change in engine parameters (e.g., a small rise in EGT/EPR) when anti-ice is selected on ✓
  2. A large drop in oil quantity
  3. Illumination of the landing gear warning per the applicable maintenance manual under normal operating conditions

Why: Selecting engine anti-ice bleeds warm air, which slightly changes engine parameters (a small EGT rise and thrust change) — a normal indication used to confirm the anti-ice valves have opened. FAA-H-8083-32B ch.3.

During cruise, why are cowl flaps normally closed?

  1. To reduce cooling drag once adequate cooling is achieved at cruise airspeed ✓
  2. To increase the fuel flow according to the manufacturer's service data
  3. To feather the propeller

Why: At cruise the higher airspeed provides ample cooling airflow, so the cowl flaps are closed to reduce the aerodynamic drag (and improve efficiency); they are opened for climb/ground operation where more cooling is needed. FAA-H-8083-32B ch.3.

A sudden increase in oil consumption accompanied by metal in the filter suggests what?

  1. Serious internal wear or component distress requiring investigation before further flight ✓
  2. That the oil grade is simply too high according to the manufacturer's service data
  3. That the filter needs to be tightened

Why: A sudden rise in oil consumption together with metal particles in the filter/chip detector points to serious internal wear or a failing component; the cause must be found and corrected before further operation. FAA-H-8083-32B ch.6.

Approximately half of all muffler and heat exchanger failures can be traced to what?

  1. Cracks or ruptures in the heat-exchanger surfaces used for cabin and carburetor heat ✓
  2. Loose spark plugs
  3. Worn propeller blades according to the manufacturer's service data under normal operating conditions

Why: About half of muffler/heat-exchanger failures are cracks or ruptures in the heat-exchanger surface (usually the outer wall) that supplies cabin and carburetor heat, allowing exhaust gas into those systems. FAA-H-8083-32B ch.3.

Why do most piston aircraft engines use a dual ignition system (two spark plugs per cylinder, two magnetos)?

  1. For redundancy/safety and to burn the charge more completely for better performance ✓
  2. Because one plug fires the intake charge and the other the exhaust under normal operating conditions
  3. To allow the engine to run on either avgas or jet fuel

Why: Aircraft piston engines use dual ignition (two spark plugs per cylinder fired by two independent magnetos) for redundancy/safety and for more complete, even combustion, which improves power and efficiency. FAA-H-8083-32B ch.1.

What is the function of the igniter plugs in a gas turbine engine?

  1. To ignite the fuel-air mixture during engine start (after which combustion is continuous and self-sustaining) ✓
  2. To fire continuously throughout every combustion cycle like a spark plug per the applicable maintenance manual
  3. To measure the exhaust gas temperature

Why: Turbine igniter plugs provide a high-energy spark to light the fuel-air mixture during starting; once combustion is established it is continuous and self-sustaining, and the igniters are turned off. FAA-H-8083-32B ch.1.

Why must a thermocouple lead never be shortened or lengthened from its specified length?

  1. The lead's calibrated resistance is part of the circuit; changing its length gives an incorrect temperature reading ✓
  2. A longer lead would short-circuit the aircraft battery under normal operating conditions per the applicable maintenance manual
  3. The lead length sets the engine's redline rpm

Why: Thermocouple leads have a calibrated resistance built into the indicating circuit; if the lead length is changed, the resistance changes and the indicated temperature is incorrect, so excess length is coiled, not cut. FAA-H-8083-32B ch.10.

The scope and detail of items for an engine annual/100-hour inspection are found where?

  1. 14 CFR part 43, Appendix D ✓
  2. 14 CFR part 43, Appendix A
  3. 14 CFR part 39

Why: The scope and detail of items to include in an annual or 100-hour inspection (including engine items) are listed in 14 CFR part 43, Appendix D. 14 CFR part 43 App D.

In a DC generation system, the point from which the various circuits draw power is the what?

  1. The distribution bus (bus bar) ✓
  2. The commutator under normal operating conditions
  3. The field coil

Why: The distribution bus (bus bar) is the common point supplied by the generator/battery, from which the individual circuits (through their protection devices) draw power. FAA-H-8083-32B ch.4.

A fire extinguisher bottle's discharge indicators tell maintenance what?

  1. Whether the bottle discharged normally (crew-commanded) or thermally (from overheat), via colored disks ✓
  2. The remaining engine oil quantity according to the manufacturer's service data under normal operating conditions
  3. The next inspection due date

Why: Colored discharge-indicator disks at the bottle show whether it discharged normally from a crew command or thermally from an over-temperature (a red disk blown out indicates a thermal discharge), guiding the corrective action. FAA-H-8083-32B ch.9.

Turbine engine internal air cooling directs compressor air to cool which hot-section parts?

  1. The turbine blades, disks, and nozzle guide vanes ✓
  2. The fuel pump and oil tank under normal operating conditions
  3. The propeller hub

Why: Internal cooling air (from the compressor) is directed over the hottest parts — turbine nozzle guide vanes, turbine blades, and disks — to keep their temperatures within limits despite the high gas temperatures. FAA-H-8083-32B ch.1.

Inspection of aluminum propeller blades by dye-penetrant inspection is accomplished to detect

  1. fatigue failure. ✓
  2. material debond.
  3. warpage.

Why: Dye-penetrant inspection of aluminum propeller blades detects fatigue-failure cracks per FAA-H-8083-32B ch.7.

What is the purpose of dynamic dampers on a reciprocating engine crankshaft?

  1. To reduce torsional vibration of the crankshaft during operation ✓
  2. To increase the compression ratio of the cylinders
  3. To pump oil to the connecting-rod bearings

Why: Dynamic dampers (pendulum-type counterweights) are incorporated on the crankshaft to reduce torsional vibration to a minimum during engine operation. FAA-H-8083-32B ch.1.

What is the purpose of the diffuser section (just ahead of the combustor) in a gas turbine engine?

  1. To slow the high-velocity compressor discharge air and raise its static pressure before combustion ✓
  2. To speed up the air so the flame burns faster
  3. To extract energy from the gas to drive the fan as noted in the manufacturer's instructions

Why: The diffuser slows the high-velocity air leaving the compressor and increases its static pressure before it enters the combustor; slowing the air keeps the flame from being blown out. FAA-H-8083-32B ch.1.

Spectrometric oil analysis (SOAP) monitors engine condition by measuring what?

  1. Trace wear metals dissolved in the oil, trended over time ✓
  2. The oil's octane rating
  3. The cabin carbon monoxide level as noted in the manufacturer's instructions

Why: SOAP measures the parts-per-million of wear metals (iron, aluminum, silver, copper, etc.) in an oil sample; trends in specific metals point to which components are wearing, supporting condition monitoring. FAA-H-8083-32B ch.6.

When inspecting engine mounts, the technician looks primarily for what?

  1. Cracks, distortion, corrosion, and security of the mount structure and hardware, and condition of the vibration isolators ✓
  2. The specific gravity of the mount material under normal operating conditions per the applicable maintenance manual
  3. The octane rating of the mount bushings

Why: Engine mount inspection checks the mount structure and hardware for cracks, distortion, corrosion, and security, and checks the vibration isolators (shock mounts) for deterioration, since a failed mount is a serious hazard. FAA-H-8083-32B ch.8.

An engine that has been submerged (e.g., in a flood or ditching) requires what?

  1. A special inspection/overhaul, because water and contaminants cause internal corrosion and damage ✓
  2. Only an oil change before further flight per the applicable maintenance manual under normal operating conditions
  3. No action if it still starts

Why: A submerged (flood/immersion) engine requires a special inspection and usually a teardown/overhaul because water and contaminants enter the engine and cause corrosion and bearing/component damage. FAA-H-8083-32B ch.8.

A 'shower of sparks' starting system uses what to aid starting?

  1. An induction vibrator that delivers a series of retarded sparks during cranking ✓
  2. A second battery connected in series per the applicable maintenance manual under normal operating conditions
  3. A larger spark plug gap only

Why: The shower of sparks system uses an induction vibrator to feed a rapid series of sparks to a retard breaker/points during starting, giving a 'shower' of retarded sparks that improves starting and prevents kickback. FAA-H-8083-32B ch.4.

An engine fuel system inspection includes checking for what?

  1. Leaks, security and condition of lines/fittings, filter condition, and correct operation of the pump and metering unit ✓
  2. Only the color of the fuel under normal operating conditions per the applicable maintenance manual under normal operating conditions
  3. Only the ignition timing

Why: Fuel system inspection covers leaks, the security and condition of lines, hoses, and fittings, filter/strainer condition (water/sediment), and correct operation of the fuel pump and metering (carburetor/injection/FCU) unit. FAA-H-8083-32B ch.2.

A turbine engine 'hot start' is prevented/limited by monitoring what during start?

  1. The exhaust gas temperature (EGT/ITT), aborting the start if it approaches the limit ✓
  2. The oil quantity gauge under normal operating conditions per the applicable maintenance manual
  3. The cabin altitude

Why: During a turbine start the crew monitors EGT/ITT; if it rises too fast toward the start limit (a hot start), the start is aborted (fuel off) to avoid turbine damage. FAA-H-8083-32B ch.4.

On a turbosupercharged engine, the exhaust system operates under what condition compared with a normally aspirated one?

  1. Greatly increased pressure and temperature, requiring extra care in maintenance ✓
  2. Much lower pressure and temperature as noted in the manufacturer's instructions
  3. Identical conditions

Why: With a turbocharger/turbosupercharger the exhaust system runs under greatly increased pressure and temperature; extra precautions in care and maintenance are required, especially at high-altitude operation. FAA-H-8083-32B ch.3.

An alternator produces what type of current, and how is it made usable for a DC system?

  1. Alternating current (often three-phase), rectified to DC by built-in diodes ✓
  2. Direct current, then inverted to AC
  3. Alternating current used directly with no conversion per the applicable maintenance manual

Why: An alternator generates alternating current (commonly three-phase); on light aircraft it is rectified to DC by built-in diodes before reaching the DC bus. FAA-H-8083-32B ch.4.

A recurring AD on an engine requires what recordkeeping?

  1. The records must show the method of compliance and the next-due time or date for each recurrence ✓
  2. Only the date the AD was first published
  3. Nothing, because recurring ADs are optional as noted in the manufacturer's instructions

Why: For a recurring AD, the maintenance records must show the method of compliance and the next-due time/date, so the recurring inspection or action is tracked and not missed. FAA-H-8083-32B ch.8.

A generator control unit (GCU) on a modern engine electrical system performs what functions?

  1. Voltage regulation plus overvoltage, overcurrent, and reverse-current protection and paralleling control ✓
  2. Only the metering of fuel to the engine as noted in the manufacturer's instructions as noted in the manufacturer's instructions
  3. Only the cabin temperature control

Why: A generator control unit (GCU) integrates voltage regulation with the protective functions (overvoltage, overcurrent, differential/reverse-current) and, on multi-generator systems, paralleling/load-sharing control. FAA-H-8083-32B ch.4.